Christmas Deadweight Loss: Objectively Better Gifts?
By Ian
Not sure why I didn't bring this up earlier, and now I've decided to make it a whole post rather than just a tack-on to the original post below.
Take a look at SwapAGift.com, and click on a few of the swaps-a-lot merchandisers. You'll see a list of current cards available and at what price they can be purchased.
Could the difference between the value on the card and the price the card finally sells for serve as a measure of approximate loss on this kind of gift? For instance, on a Pottery Barn card, the approximately $8.50 average difference between actual card value and price it can be bought for might be a valuation for the difference between the monetary value laid out by the purchaser and the receiver's value -- a decent portion of the deadweight loss. Further, one might start to strarify this according to merchandiser type: compare a weighted average difference between stored value and buy prices (weighted according to average size of card to account for the kind of goods, like comparing Tiffany's versus Target, as well as the number of cards sold to take some measure of the volume of trade) to see where losses are greater or lesser relative to some standard such as cash. Those closer to cash's value might be the "better" gifts since they tend to exhibit relatively less loss (on this one measure) than others.
Of course, this kind of thing always raises more questions. Is this difference driven by trends, such as higher demands for electronics one year, home furnishings or jewelry the next? Does the distribution of stores impact the desireability of certain categories, as it might be easier to get to stores that are closer by? What about the effect of income levels? Rural vs. urban?
Or maybe I just need to lie down.
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